Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 12:50
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
This STD is nearly 30 times worse in Onondaga County than it was 20 years ago - Syracuse.com
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What do you respect the most about Elon Musk?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?